The house was bought by the mother-in-law, and the daughter-in-law and son were co-payers, but the money was always paid by the mother-in-law. Does the daughter-in-law have the right to ask for the house payment when she divorces? In principle, it is not allowed unless the purchase contract is changed in advance or the share of real estate is given or bought or sold afterwards. The reason for this is the following：

1, the purchase contract is an important basis for handling the property right certificate. The name of property right registration is based on the purchase contract. Generally, only property rights are agreed upon for shares, such as joint ownership or joint ownership. 2. If the mortgage loan is handled in the house purchase contract, then the buyer, as the mortgagee, needs to bear the repayment obligation together, so the loan bank will not agree to reduce the number of mortgagees and change the property right certificate. If it is impossible to re-sign the house purchase contract in advance, it is suggested to agree to share it in shares. The share of property rights is 99, and the share of unnamed property rights is 1, so that after the property certificate is completed, the gift or sale formalities will be handled, and the corresponding taxes and fees will be much less. Another way is to make an agreement on the confirmation of property rights, such as making it clear that although the property right certificate belongs to two people, the actual property right belongs to one person and is notarized, which is more secure. Of course, how to operate depends on the actual situation