Because it is a standby letter of credit financing, the receiving bank (beneficiary) should issue loans to the designated borrowers and recover the loans from the borrowers when the loans expire, whether it is a domestic loan guaranteed externally or a foreign loan guaranteed externally. Only when the borrower fails to repay the loan after maturity can he claim compensation from the issuing bank by using the standby letter of credit in his favor to fill the loan. What is the logic of buyout here?

Generally speaking, the so-called "buyout" refers to the buyout of banks by paying the negotiating price to creditors and obtaining creditor's rights from creditors. It can be seen that "buyout" occurs in the transaction between banks and creditors, not in the transaction with debtors.

So there is something wrong with the questioner's question or logic. Please clarify the logical relationship first, or introduce the case clearly before asking questions, in order to get the correct answer.