I would like to ask good people: after her husband got married, she went to the bank to get a low mortgage loan and used her pre-marital property to buy a house for her parents. Is this debt the same as that of husband and wife? Your question contains two parts that need to be clarified: 1, the investment right and property right of the purchased house; 2. Definition of loan debt.

If the two are linked, it will be easy. Now it's separated. It's a little complicated.

First of all, taking pre-marital property as mortgage loan after marriage can be regarded as personal debt, but the marital loan bank has its own requirements, that is, both husband and wife share the responsibility. If they are single, ask them to issue a single certificate. In this case, after signing the contract, if your husband and wife have no objection, * * * will bear the bank loan debt and register the house in his parents' name. There are two possibilities. The first one is regarded as his personal debt and his personal gift to his parents (real estate). The debt you bear with him is actually that you help him bear the repayment. If you divorce, you should compensate for the contribution you made with him. But in marriage, it should be regarded as his personal debt.

Another possibility is that if it is regarded as the debt of the two of you, the property is given to your parents by you, but it involves the difference between the amount of capital contribution and the mortgage. Mortgage does not change the familiarity with the property, and his pre-marital property is still his. Repayment after marriage is regarded as capital contribution.

You have the right to dispose of the purchased property, but you agree to write his parents' names, which will be regarded as your gift.