If one party borrows money to buy a house before marriage, how will the house be allocated after divorce?
If one party borrows money to buy a house before marriage, how will the house be allocated after divorce? 1. Before marriage, one of the husband and wife purchased the house with personal property and mortgaged the loan. Before marriage, one of the husband and wife obtains the house ownership certificate, and after marriage, both parties repay the money.
In this case, the house is one person's personal property, and the other party has no right to ask for division in divorce. However, for the spouse involved in the loan, the other party has the right to ask the other party to repay part of the repayment.
In this case, it is necessary to ensure that * * * is paid together, whether it is personal salary or wages of both parties, it should be regarded as * * * with loans. Therefore, when a family with a loan divorces, the lender can ask the other party to repay the loan. You can also ask for compensation for housing appreciation.
If one party borrows money to buy a house before marriage, how will the house be allocated after divorce? 2. Both husband and wife buy a house with personal property and mortgage loan before marriage, and both parties repay after marriage to obtain the title certificate.
If one party borrows money to buy a house before marriage, how will the house be allocated after divorce? In this case, the mortgaged house is the personal property of one party before marriage and will not be divided when divorced. Because one party bought mortgage to buy a house with personal property before marriage, the title certificate obtained after marriage is the confirmation of buying a house before marriage and does not belong to the joint property of husband and wife.
Buying a house with a loan before marriage, how to divide the house after divorce? If it is considered that the husband and wife have the same property just because they have obtained the title certificate after marriage, then there will be a phenomenon that one party has no funds at all, just because of marriage. This result violates the principle of fairness.
If one party borrows money to buy a house before marriage, how will the house be allocated after divorce? 3. Both husband and wife buy houses and mortgage loans with * * * real estate before marriage. After marriage, * * * repays the loan, obtains the pre-marital real estate license and the real estate license is registered in the name of one party.
If one party borrows money to buy a house before marriage, how will the house be allocated after divorce? Because in general, we determine who the property belongs to based on the name on the property ownership certificate. Therefore, it is very easy to be recognized as the property of the registrant at this time.
Therefore, when the unregistered party claims that the house is the same property, it must first prove that it has fulfilled its investment obligation to buy the house before marriage; Second, it is necessary to prove that before marriage, the premise is that both parties agree that the purchased house belongs to * * * *. If the corresponding evidence cannot be provided, the property is deemed to be the property of one party and will not be divided when it is divided.
Before marriage, one parent of the husband and wife participated in the purchase and obtained the real estate license after marriage.
If one party borrows money to buy a house before marriage, how will the house be allocated after divorce? According to the law, before a couple get married, if their parents contribute to the purchase of a house for both parties, the contribution shall be regarded as a personal gift to their children, unless the parents expressly give it to both parties. Therefore, before marriage, parents invested in buying a house, and after marriage, * * * owing on the loan does not affect the ownership of the house. At this time, when the divorced mortgaged house is divided, it does not participate in the division, but only belongs to one party.