The house bought with a loan before marriage and the car bought before marriage are also the names of the man, but the woman added 30 thousand with the bride price. And then repay the loan. It's always that man? Regarding your question, according to your explanation, combined with the provisions of the Civil Code and relevant judicial interpretations, the property purchased before marriage is registered in the name of one party, and it is recognized as the personal property of the registered party at the time of divorce. The property that you and the man bought with a bride price before marriage, but did not agree to be owned by * * * *, should be considered as your loan to the man, and you can ask for the return of the money when you divorce.